Lets say that example.com is a domain hosted on only one machine with primary nameserver ns1.example.com hosted on a seperate machine. Additionally, the machine hosting example.com is running a BIND9 DNS server. Would ns1.example.com function as an authoratative nameserver while the BIND9 server would function as a non-authoratative nameserver? Thanks.
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I don't understand your question. "example.com" is hosted on one nameserver (which is not ns1.example.com, so let's call it ns.otherdomain.com) while the ns1.example.com subdomain is delegated to... ns1.example.com? It's an unusual delegation. Try specifying what the contents of the zone files would be on each machine in order to clarify your question.
– Celada
1 Answers
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Probably. It depents how you configure them. There are many misconfigured authoritive nameservers around that also do resolve. Even TLD operators do that bad practise: http://tinyurl.com/co4r59m
It's better to keep those strictly seperated. I cannot tell how your nameservers are configured without know them, or without seeing the configuration.
