I have 2 applications (one .NET and other Angular SPA (web services in .NET) with the same domain name. I need to enable SSO for these 2 applications. Both the web.config have the same machine key and they are enabled for Forms authentication mode.
I log in to the .NET site, I present the angular site in iFrame. When opening the iframe, the API call includes the .ASPXAUTH cookie in the request header but HttpContext.User.Identity.Authenticated is set to false. So it returns a 404 and redirects to the login page for the angular site within the iframe.
The auth cookie is HttpOnly so angular is unable to read it. But since the cookie is set in the request header,API (.NET) method should consider it as authenticated and it is not. Anything I am missing?
FormsAuthentication.Decrypt(HttpContext.Request.Cookies[FormsAuthentication.FormsCookieName].Value)on API request, so that you can ensure the value passed can be decrypted and contains valid user identifier which can be used by API - LanorkinApplication_PostAuthenticateRequest(check step 5 of this post) method in my global asax. When I send a request from postman, it says that the request has 1 cookie, whereas when I send it from angular it says 0. I've checked both the angular and postman cookie, and the two values are identical. - nick zoum