I am confused about the evidence and Prop
etc. in Coq. How do we prove that (n = n) = (m = m)
?
My intention is to show this is somehow True=True
. But this is even correct formulation?
What I tried so far is:
Theorem test: forall m n:nat, (n = n) = (m = m).
Proof. intros. simpl.
But simpl.
does nothing, and reflexivity
neither. This is just an example, in general, I need to prove this for any type X
if possible.
(n = n) <-> (m = m)
? Since<->
can be seen as equality between propositions, in Coq. – Rodrigo Ribeiron = m
and sorefl n <> refl m
. I've spent the last hour trying to prove that(a=a)=(b=b)
fails ifa<>b
but am still stuck. I've tried some interesting approaches and might post an "answer" later on detailing why the stuff I tried must fail. (But right now I just have a headache…) – nobody