11
votes

Why we cannot use boolean values in aggregate functions without casting to some integer type first? In many cases it makes perfect sense to calculate sum, average or correlation from columns of boolean data type.

Consider the following example where boolean input has to be always casted to int in order to make it work:

select
   sum(boolinput::int),
   avg(boolinput::int),
   max(boolinput::int),
   min(boolinput::int),
   stddev(boolinput::int),
   corr(boolinput::int,boolinputb::int)   
from
   (select 
      (random() > .5)::boolean as boolinput,
      (random() > .5)::boolean as boolinputB 
    from 
      generate_series(1,100)
   ) a

From PostgreSQL documentation:

Valid literal values for the "true" state are: TRUE 't' 'true' 'y' 'yes' 'on' '1'

For the "false" state, the following values can be used: FALSE 'f' 'false' 'n' 'no' 'off' '0'

Because by definition TRUE equals 1 and FALSE equals 0 I do not understand why casting is necessary.

Allowing boolean in aggregation would have also interesting side effects - we can for example simplify many case statements:

Current version (clean and easy to understand):

select sum(case when gs > 50 then 1 else 0 end) from generate_series(1,100) gs;

Using old fashioned casting operator :::

select sum((gs > 50)::int) from generate_series(1,100) gs;

Direct aggregation of boolean values (not working currently):

select sum(gs > 50) from generate_series(1,100) gs;

Is direct aggregation of boolean values possible in other DBMSs? Why this is not possible in PostgreSQL?

5
"Because by definition TRUE equals 1 and FALSE equals 0" that might be true for a database like MySQL which doesn't actually have a boolean data type (and a very "relaxed" datatype checking as well) but is certainly not true for Postgres (or any DBMS or programming language that has a real boolean datatype) - a_horse_with_no_name
@a_horse_with_no_name I can understand that technically this is not the same, but still there is a fixed build-in link between boolean and int in PostgreSQL: select true::int = 1::int and false::int = 0::int; - Tomas Greif
Those are pre-defined rules on how to convert one value into another. It's the same thing why you can cast the string '1' to the number 1. Are you also surprised that you can not sum() on a varchar column that only contains strings that are valid numbers? - a_horse_with_no_name
@a_horse_with_no_name Good point. I am surprised that it does not work for boolean specifically. In some statistical packages it is easy to aggregate boolean values (in R: mean(c(TRUE,FALSE,TRUE,FALSE,TRUE));). - Tomas Greif
A boolean type is not a numeric type. For integers 1+1:=2. For booleans: True + True := **Nonsense**. Instead of the + operator, there are and and or for booleans. And you can count the number of tuples for which a boolean column is True or False. And that will yield a numeric type. - wildplasser

5 Answers

9
votes

Because by definition TRUE equals 1 and FALSE equals 0 I do not understand why casting is necessary.

Per the docs you have quoted in your question, a boolean is not, by definition, 1 for TRUE and 0 for FALSE. It's not true in C either, where TRUE is anything non-zero.

For that matter, nor is it for languages that mimic C in this respect, of which there are many. Nor is it for languages such as Ruby, where anything non-Nil/non-False evaluates to True, including zero and empty strings. Nor is it for POSIX shell and variations thereof, where testing a return code yields TRUE if it is zero, and FALSE for anything non-zero.

Point is, a boolean is a boolean, with all sorts of colorful implementation details from a platform to the next; not an integer.

It's unclear how you were expecting Postgres to average true/false values. I'm suspicious that many if any platform will yield a result for that.

Even summing booleans is awkward: would expecting Postgres to OR the input values, or to count TRUE values?

At any rate, there are some boolean aggregate functions, namely bool_or() and bool_and(). These replace the more standard any() and some(). The reason Postgres deviates from the standard here is due to potential ambiguity. Per the docs:

SELECT b1 = ANY((SELECT b2 FROM t2 ...)) FROM t1 ...;

Here ANY can be considered either as introducing a subquery, or as being an aggregate function, if the subquery returns one row with a Boolean value.

http://www.postgresql.org/docs/current/static/functions-aggregate.html

3
votes

Here are some possibilities

select max(c::int)::boolean, min(c::int)::boolean, bool_or(c) as max_b,bool_and(c) as min_b from
(
        select false as c
  union select true
  union select null
) t
2
votes

Here is how one can achieve max(boolean)

CREATE AGGREGATE max(boolean) (
  SFUNC=boolor_statefunc,
  STYPE=bool,
  SORTOP=">"
);  

where "boolor_statefunc" is built in function

0
votes

To sum boolean values, I have created the following custom aggregate function:

create or replace function badd (bigint, boolean)
  returns bigint as
$body$
select $1 + case when true then 1 else 0 end;
$body$ language sql;

create aggregate sum(boolean) (
  sfunc=badd,
  stype=int8,
  initcond='0'
);

Now I can easily sum boolean values or count rows meeting specific condition:

with test (a, b, c) as (
   values
      ('true'::boolean,'a'::varchar, 'd'::text),
      ('true'::boolean,'a'::varchar, 'e'::text),      
      ('false'::boolean,'a'::varchar, 'f'::text),
      ('true'::boolean,'b'::varchar, 'd'::text),
      ('false'::boolean,'b'::varchar, 'd'::text),
      ('true'::boolean,'c'::varchar, 'f'::text),                
      (NULL,'c'::varchar,'d')      
    ) 
select 
   b,
   bsum(a) as sum, -- sum boolean value (TRUE=1, FALSE=0)
   bsum(c = 'd') as dsum -- counts all rows where column c equals to value 'd'
from 
   test
group by
   b
0
votes

Another option is ARRAY_AGG:

SELECT 
  id,
  true = ANY(ARRAY_AGG(flag)) AS flag
FROM my_table
GROUP BY id