If I thought I knew anything about C++ then it was that you can't overload functions by return type.
So can anyone explain what is going on here please?
class A { public: typedef int _foo; };
class B {};
template<class T>
typename T::_foo Foo(int)
{
cout << "Foo(int)\n"; return typename T::_foo();
}
template<class T>
typename T Foo(char)
{
cout << "Foo(char)\n"; return typename T();
}
int main()
{
Foo<A>(0); // Writes "Foo(int)", as expected.
Foo<B>(0); // Writes "Foo(char), expected error unable to compile template.
return 0;
}
There are two classes A and B. A defines typedef _foo, B does not. There are two overloads of function template Foo, Foo(int) and Foo(char). Foo(int) returns T::_foo, Foo(char) returns T.
Foo(0) is then called twice. This is an exact match for Foo(int) so I would expect Foo<A>(0) to compile ok, and Foo<B>(0) to fail to compile since B does not define the type _foo used in the template.
What actually happens is that Foo<B>(0) completely ignores Foo(int) and instantiates Foo(char) instead. But by the normal rules of overload resolution Foo(0) is clearly an exact match for Foo(int), and the only thing that makes Foo(char) a more viable match is the return type which should not be considered.
To verify that it is the return value that is affecting the overload resolution just add this:
template<class T>
void Bar(int) { typename T::_foo a; cout << "Bar(int)\n"; }
template<class T>
void Bar(char) { cout << "Bar(char)\n"; }
Bar<A>(0); // Writes "Bar(int), as expected.
//Bar<B>(0); // Error C2039: '_foo' : is not a member of 'B', as expected.
This makes it clear that in the absence of the return value Foo(int) is indeed the correct overload, and that if the template cannot resolve the types used from its template argument that failure to compile is the normal outcome.