Say, I have
member this.Test (x: 'a) = printfn "generic"
1
member this.Test (x: Object) = printfn "non generic"
2
If I call it in C#
var a = test.Test(3); // calls generic version
var b = test.Test((object)3); // calls non generic version
var c = test.Test<object>(3); // calls generic version
However, in F#
let d = test.Test(3); // calls non generic version
let e = test.Test<int>(3); // calls generic version
So I have to add type annotation so as to get the correct overloaded method. Is this true? If so, then why F# doesn't automatically resolve correctly given that the argument type is already inferred? (what is the order of F#'s overload resolution anyway? always favor Object than its inherited classes?)
It is a bit dangerous if a method has both overloads, one of them takes argument as Object type and the other one is generic and both return the same type. (like in this example, or Assert.AreEqual in unit testing), as then it is very much likely we get the wrong overloading without even notice (won't be any compiler error). Wouldn't it be a problem?
Update:
Could someone explain
Why F# resolves
Assert.AreEqual(3, 5)asAssert.AreEqual(Object a, Object b)but notAssert.AreEqual<T>(T a, T b)But F# resolves
Array.BinarySearch([|2;3|], 2)asBinarySearch<T>(T[]array, T value)but notBinarySearch(Array array, Object value)
test.Test<_>(3)? - svick