Suppose I have a Singleton bean with an EntityManager in it. The singleton also specifies (on method or class level) a transaction attribute REQUIRED. The entity manager is obtained via an @PersistenceContext injection which specifies persistence context type TRANSACTION. For all intents and purposes, if a method on this singleton is invoked with an existing transaction, the entity manager should join the transaction or possibly provide an already existing one linked to that transaction via proxy. If such a method is invoked outside of a transaction a new transaction will be started for the duration of the method invocation.
Now suppose we have a second bean which uses bean-managed transactions and injects the singleton. If it explicitly starts a user transaction and then invokes a method on the singleton, will the entity manager in that method join that user transaction? Will the jump from bean-managed to container-managed transaction context even work? I know the other way around doesn't and forms a barrier.
The singleton class:
@Singleton
@TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.REQUIRED)
public class PersistenceSingleton {
@PersistenceContext(unitName = "test", type = PersistenceContextType.TRANSACTION)
private EntityManager em;
public void doStuff() {
// perform actions with the entity manager that imply changes in the database
}
}
The bean with user transactions (might as well be stateless or stateful):
@Singleton
@TransactionManagement(TransactionManagementType.BEAN)
public class PersistenceFacade {
@EJB
private PeristenceSingleton ps;
@Resource
private UserTransaction userTx;
public void doStuff() {
userTx.begin();
ps.doStuff();
userTx.commit();
}
}
Does the transaction started in method doStuff() of the PersistenceFacade get taken into account when invoking doStuff() on the PersistenceSingleton? Does the entity manager automatically join the transaction and behave as expected from transaction isolation during concurrent access?